Calculus · Grade 12 and undergraduate
Improper Integrals
Quick answer
An improper integral has an infinite limit of integration or an integrand that blows up on the interval. It is defined as a limit of ordinary integrals, such as ∫₁^∞ f(x) dx = lim as b → ∞ of ∫₁ᵇ f(x) dx. If the limit exists, the integral converges; otherwise it diverges. The integral of 1/xᵖ from 1 to ∞ converges exactly when p > 1, and from 0 to 1 exactly when p < 1. An infinitely long region can have a finite area, if its height falls off fast enough.
What you'll learn
- Write an improper integral as a limit of ordinary integrals
- Decide whether an improper integral converges, and find its value
- Use the p-integrals as benchmarks
- Spot an integrand that is unbounded inside the interval
Integrals without an end
A definite integral is built from Riemann sums over a finite interval, with a bounded integrand. Drop either condition and the definition needs a limit.
Definition
If is continuous on ,
If the limit exists, the integral converges to that value. Otherwise it diverges. An integral over is split at any point into two such integrals, and converges only if both do.
- y = 1/x²
- y = 1/x
Why an endless region can have finite area
Compare how the two curves in the graph add area as doubles. From to , the curve adds : the same amount every time, forever. The curve adds : half as much with each doubling. Amounts that keep halving add up to a finite total; equal amounts do not. Whether an endless region has finite area depends on how fast its height falls, not on how long the region is.
The same test, run for every power, gives the benchmark integrals:
Integrands that blow up
An integrand can also be unbounded at an endpoint. Then the limit approaches that endpoint from inside the interval:
Near the benchmark flips: converges if and diverges if . If the integrand is unbounded inside the interval, split there and treat each piece as improper.
Worked examples
Common mistakes
Practice problems
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Evaluate .
Answer
Full solution
. It is a -integral with : .
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Evaluate .
Answer
Full solution
Split at . , and by symmetry the left half is also .
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Does converge?
Answer
No, it diverges.
Full solution
It is a -integral with . Directly: , which grows without bound.
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Evaluate .
Answer
Full solution
.
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Evaluate .
Answer
Full solution
.
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Evaluate .
Answer
Full solution
as .
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Does converge?
Answer
No, it diverges.
Full solution
, which grows without bound as .
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Evaluate .
Answer
Full solution
By parts, . By L’Hôpital’s rule, , so the limit is .
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Does converge?
Answer
No, it diverges.
Full solution
The integrand is unbounded at , inside the interval. Split there: , which grows without bound.
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A student writes . What went wrong?
Hint
Where is undefined?
Answer
The integrand is unbounded at , inside the interval. The integral diverges.
Full solution
The Fundamental Theorem needs a continuous integrand on the whole interval. Splitting at , diverges, so the integral does too.
A negative answer for a positive integrand was the warning sign.
Frequently asked questions
What makes an integral improper?
An infinite limit of integration, such as ∫ from 1 to ∞, or an integrand that becomes unbounded somewhere on the interval, such as 1/√x near 0.
What does it mean for an improper integral to converge?
The limit that defines it exists as a finite number. That number is the value of the integral.
For which p does ∫ from 1 to ∞ of 1/xᵖ converge?
For p > 1, with value 1/(p − 1). For p ≤ 1 it diverges; p = 1 gives ln b, which grows without bound.
If f(x) goes to 0, does ∫ from 1 to ∞ of f converge?
Not necessarily. 1/x goes to 0, yet its integral from 1 to ∞ diverges. The height has to fall fast enough.
Why is ∫ from −1 to 1 of 1/x² not equal to −2?
The integrand is unbounded at x = 0, inside the interval, so the Fundamental Theorem does not apply. Split at 0: each piece diverges, so the integral diverges.